Ham Extra License Practice Quiz


• Percentage: 0%; Correct: 0; Total: 0 of 50

E0A03: Which of the following would be a practical way to estimate whether the RF fields produced by an amateur radio station are within permissible MPE limits?

Use a calibrated antenna analyzer
Use a hand calculator plus Smith-chart equations to calculate the fields
Use an antenna modeling program to calculate field strength at accessible locations
All of the choices are correct

E1A02: When using a transceiver that displays the carrier frequency of phone signals, which of the following displayed frequencies represents the lowest frequency at which a properly adjusted LSB emission will be totally within the band?

The exact lower band edge
300 Hz above the lower band edge
1 kHz above the lower band edge
3 kHz above the lower band edge

E1B06: Which of the following additional rules apply if you are installing an amateur station antenna at a site at or near a public use airport?

You may have to notify the Federal Aviation Administration and register it with the FCC as required by Part 17 of FCC rules
No special rules apply if your antenna structure will be less than 300 feet in height
You must file an Environmental Impact Statement with the EPA before construction begins
You must obtain a construction permit from the airport zoning authority

E1C04: When may an automatically controlled station retransmit third party communications?

Never
Only when transmitting RTTY or data emissions
When specifically agreed upon by the sending and receiving stations
When approved by the National Telecommunication and Information Administration

E1D11: Which amateur stations are eligible to operate as Earth stations?

Any amateur station whose licensee has filed a pre-space notification with the FCC's International Bureau
Only those of General, Advanced or Amateur Extra Class operators
Only those of Amateur Extra Class operators
Any amateur station, subject to the privileges of the class of operator license held by the control operator

E1E02: Where are the questions for all written US amateur license examinations listed?

In FCC Part 97
In a question pool maintained by the FCC
In a question pool maintained by all the VECs
In the appropriate FCC Report and Order

E1F13: What types of communications may be transmitted to amateur stations in foreign countries?

Business-related messages for non-profit organizations
Messages intended for connection to users of the maritime satellite service
Communications incidental to the purpose of the amateur service and remarks of a personal nature
All of these choices are correct

E2A07: Which of the following types of signals can be relayed through a linear transponder?

FM and CW
SSB and SSTV
PSK and Packet
All of these choices are correct

E2B16: Which of the following is the video standard used by North American Fast Scan ATV stations?

PAL
DRM
Scottie
NTSC

E2C03: From which of the following bands is amateur radio contesting generally excluded?

30 meters
6 meters
2 meters
33 cm

E2D07: Which of the following digital protocols is used by APRS?

PACTOR
802.11
AX.25
AMTOR

E2E01: Which type of modulation is common for data emissions below 30 MHz?

DTMF tones modulating an FM signal
FSK
Pulse modulation
Spread spectrum

E3A03: When scheduling EME contacts, which of these conditions will generally result in the least path loss?

When the Moon is at perigee
When the Moon is full
When the Moon is at apogee
When the MUF is above 30 MHz

E3B08: What type of HF propagation is probably occurring if radio signals travel along the terminator between daylight and darkness?

Transequatorial
Sporadic-E
Long-path
Gray-line

E3C11: From the contiguous 48 states, in which approximate direction should an antenna be pointed to take maximum advantage of aurora propagation?

South
North
East
West

E4A06: Which of the following could be determined with a spectrum analyzer?

The degree of isolation between the input and output ports of a 2 meter duplexer
Whether a crystal is operating on its fundamental or overtone frequency
The spectral output of a transmitter
All of these choices are correct

E4B10: Which of the following describes a method to measure intermodulation distortion in an SSB transmitter?

Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related radio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two non-harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a spectrum analyzer
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a peak reading wattmeter
Modulate the transmitter with two harmonically related audio frequencies and observe the RF output with a logic analyzer

E4C10: Which of the following is a desirable amount of selectivity for an amateur RTTY HF receiver?

100 Hz
300 Hz
6000 Hz
2400 Hz

E4D13: Which of the following can cause receiver desensitization?

Audio gain adjusted too low
Strong adjacent-channel signals
Audio bias adjusted too high
Squelch gain misadjusted

E4E01: Which of the following types of receiver noise can often be reduced by use of a receiver noise blanker?

Ignition noise
Broadband white noise
Heterodyne interference
All of these choices are correct

E5A03: What is the magnitude of the impedance of a series RLC circuit at resonance?

High, as compared to the circuit resistance
Approximately equal to capacitive reactance
Approximately equal to inductive reactance
Approximately equal to circuit resistance

E5B05: How long does it take for an initial charge of 20 V DC to decrease to 7.36 V DC in a 0.01-microfarad capacitor when a 2-megohm resistor is connected across it?

0.02 seconds
0.04 seconds
20 seconds
40 seconds

E5C16: In polar coordinates, what is the impedance of a circuit that has an admittance of 7.09 millisiemens at 45 degrees?

5.03 E-06 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
19,900 ohms at an angle of -45 degrees
141 ohms at an angle of 45 degrees

E5D03: What device is used to store electrical energy in an electrostatic field?

A battery
A transformer
A capacitor
An inductor

E6A06: What is the beta of a bipolar junction transistor?

The frequency at which the current gain is reduced to 1
The change in collector current with respect to base current
The breakdown voltage of the base to collector junction
The switching speed of the transistor

E6B07: What is the failure mechanism when a junction diode fails due to excessive current?

Excessive inverse voltage
Excessive junction temperature
Insufficient forward voltage
Charge carrier depletion

E6C05: Which of the following is an advantage of CMOS logic devices over TTL devices?

Differential output capability
Lower distortion
Immune to damage from static discharge
Lower power consumption

E6D12: How many turns will be required to produce a 5-microhenry inductor using a powdered-iron toroidal core that has an inductance index (A L) value of 40 microhenrys/100 turns?

35 turns
13 turns
79 turns
141 turns

E6E09: Which of the following must be done to insure that a crystal oscillator provides the frequency specified by the crystal manufacturer?

Provide the crystal with a specified parallel inductance
Provide the crystal with a specified parallel capacitance
Bias the crystal at a specified voltage
Bias the crystal at a specified current

E6F02: What happens to the conductivity of a photoconductive material when light shines on it?

It increases
It decreases
It stays the same
It becomes unstable

E7A08: What logical operation does an OR gate perform?

It produces a logic "1" at its output if any or all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "0" at its output if all inputs are logic "1"
It only produces a logic "0" at its output when all inputs are logic "1"
It produces a logic "1" at its output if all inputs are logic "0"

E7B19: What is a klystron?

A high speed multivibrator
An electron-coupled oscillator utilizing a pentode vacuum tube
An oscillator utilizing ceramic elements to achieve stability
A VHF, UHF, or microwave vacuum tube that uses velocity modulation

E7C03: What advantage does a Pi-L-network have over a Pi-network for impedance matching between the final amplifier of a vacuum-tube transmitter and an antenna?

Greater harmonic suppression
Higher efficiency
Lower losses
Greater transformation range

E7D11: What is the purpose of R1 in the circuit shown in Figure E7-3?

It provides a constant load to the voltage source
It couples hum to D1
It supplies current to D1
It bypasses hum around D1

E7E10: How does a diode detector function?

By rectification and filtering of RF signals
By breakdown of the Zener voltage
By mixing signals with noise in the transition region of the diode
By sensing the change of reactance in the diode with respect to frequency

E7F06: What is one purpose of a marker generator?

To add audio markers to an oscilloscope
To provide a frequency reference for a phase locked loop
To provide a means of calibrating a receiver's frequency settings
To add time signals to a transmitted signal

E7G03: Which of the following is an advantage of using an op-amp instead of LC elements in an audio filter?

Op-amps are more rugged
Op-amps are fixed at one frequency
Op-amps are available in more varieties than are LC elements
Op-amps exhibit gain rather than insertion loss

E7H09: What type of frequency synthesizer circuit uses a phase accumulator, lookup table, digital to analog converter and a low-pass anti-alias filter?

A direct digital synthesizer
A hybrid synthesizer
A phase locked loop synthesizer
A diode-switching matrix synthesizer

E8A02: What type of wave has a rise time significantly faster than its fall time (or vice versa)?

A cosine wave
A square wave
A sawtooth wave
A sine wave

E8B08: What parameter does the modulating signal vary in a pulse-position modulation system?

The number of pulses per second
The amplitude of the pulses
The duration of the pulses
The time at which each pulse occurs

E8C01: Which one of the following digital codes consists of elements having unequal length?

ASCII
AX.25
Baudot
Morse code

E8D11: What is the average power dissipated by a 50-ohm resistive load during one complete RF cycle having a peak voltage of 35 volts?

12.2 watts
9.9 watts
24.5 watts
16 watts

E9A04: Why would one need to know the feed point impedance of an antenna?

To match impedances in order to minimize standing wave ratio on the transmission line
To measure the near-field radiation density from a transmitting antenna
To calculate the front-to-side ratio of the antenna
To calculate the front-to-back ratio of the antenna

E9B11: What is a disadvantage of decreasing the number of wire segments in an antenna model below the guideline of 10 segments per half-wavelength?

Ground conductivity will not be accurately modeled
The resulting design will favor radiation of harmonic energy
The computed feed point impedance may be incorrect
The antenna will become mechanically unstable

E9C03: What is the radiation pattern of two 1/4-wavelength vertical antennas spaced 1/2-wavelength apart and fed in phase?

Omnidirectional
A cardioid
A Figure-8 broadside to the axis of the array
A Figure-8 end-fire along the axis of the array

E9D07: What is a disadvantage of using a multiband trapped antenna?

It might radiate harmonics
It radiates the harmonics and fundamental equally well
It is too sharply directional at lower frequencies
It must be neutralized

E9E09: Which of these matching systems is an effective method of connecting a 50-ohm coaxial cable feed line to a grounded tower so it can be used as a vertical antenna?

Double-bazooka match
Hairpin match
Gamma match
All of these choices are correct

E9F12: What impedance does a 1/4-wavelength transmission line present to a generator when the line is open at the far end?

The same as the characteristic impedance of the line
The same as the input impedance to the generator
Very high impedance
Very low impedance

E9G04: What are the two families of circles and arcs that make up a Smith chart?

Resistance and voltage
Reactance and voltage
Resistance and reactance
Voltage and impedance

E9H10: How can the output voltage of a multi-turn receiving loop antenna be increased?

By reducing the permeability of the loop shield
By increasing the number of wire turns in the loop and reducing the area of the loop structure
By winding adjacent turns in opposing directions
By increasing either the number of wire turns in the loop or the area of the loop structure or both